Diadem wrote:eSOANEM wrote:gig = hard g (both times)
gill = hard g
gin = soft g
git = hard g
give = hard g
It seems to me that what you are calling a 'hard g' is actually more a k-like sound. English doesn't even have a hard g, you will only find it in loan words such as "Loch Ness" or "Schadenfreude".
This is complete bollocks. I will explain more fully later in this post, but you are completely wrong. The g-like sound you describe in loch ness is a soft g not a hard g and is not present in schadenfreude.
CorruptUser wrote:The English g is pronounced as an audible 'ch' or an audible 'k'. Audibles being the sounds you can't whisper. Go ahead, try to whisper 'dig'; it comes out 'tick'. Spanish doesn't have the audible part, so to a Spanish speaker, p and b sound alike, as do j and ch, g and k.
The rhotics (r and l) are... complicated.
Mandarin doesn't have a ch, zh (Jacques, azure, illusion) or j sounds exactly. The versions of those sounds are made with the tongue at the top of the mouth rather than near the front, which are almost the same but not quite. So you will see Chinese words written with Q for the ch, Zh for the j, and X for the zh.
No, this is a terrible way of analysing phonics.
English hard g is a voiced velar plosive. That is what it is. English k is an unvoiced velar plosive. What you mean by "audible" is voiced (and using ch and zh etc. isn't a great way of desribing locations/methods of production for various sounds because orthography is not a bijection).
English soft g varies but, depending on context is either a voiced postalveolar fricative or voiced postalveolar affricate. The former of these is the French (and, I believe, Italian) soft g.
The ch is "loch" is a velar fricative and doesn't exist in any standard English dialect except in loans. This is also the Spanish soft g.
hard g (agreed upon across Europe) = [g]
English soft g = [ʒ] or [ʤ] (I don't think this distinction is phonemic but the latter is more common in native words than the former)
French soft g = [ʒ]
Spanish soft g (and German and Scottish ch) = [x] or [ç] (no phonemic distinction, it depends entirely on the surrounding vowels)
All of these languages have a hard/soft g distinction and have the same hard pronunciation, but the soft variant varies a lot.
Spanish does have phonemic voicing (see peso/beso) at least with some consonants. Neither the "j" or "ch" sounds (by which I assume you mean those sounds in "jeans" and "chat" respectively) exist in Spanish (at least not in native words) so of course they aren't distinguished.
It is not surprising that Mandarin does not have directly the same consonants as in English. Besides, the hard/soft g distinction is a feature of European languages (and I think, more specifically a romance distinction which presumably got brought across to English with the Normans) so of course no such distinction really exists there.